TV Studio Tour

SECTION 2                  Questions 15 – 27

Read the text and answer Questions 15-20

Questions 15 – 20

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

  • NBC and Monogram Studios are the only two TV networks that provide a _______________
  • A guided tour at Universal Studios costs _______________
  • _______________ tour takes 70 minutes.
  • During the tour you will see the car park used by the _______________
  • Since 1994 the Tonight Show has been produced in _______________
  • Visitors can only see several _______________ rather than seeing inside actual departments.

Read the text and answer Questions 21-27

Questions 21 – 27

The text contains nine paragraphs, A -I.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

  • organising information into similar groups
  • what to do if you don’t want to delete something completely
  • avoiding too many sub-directories
  • the two main categories of incoming information
  • bow to test that your system is working
  • what you should do on a daily basis
  • what to do if your list of items is very lengthy

CLASSIC TOURS – COACH BREAK INFORMATION: Reading Answers

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General (GT) Test 1 – Passage 02: CLASSIC TOURS – COACH BREAK INFORMATION reading answers with location, explanation and pdf summary. This reading paragraph has been taken from our huge collection of Academic & General Training (GT) Reading practice test PDF’s.

CLASSIC TOURS - COACH BREAK INFORMATION: Reading Answers

IELTS reading module focuses on evaluating a candidate’s comprehension skills and ability to understand English. This is done by testing the reading proficiency through questions based on different structures and paragraphs (500-950 words each). There are 40 questions in total and hence it becomes extremely important to practice each and every question structure before actually sitting for the exam.

This reading passage mainly consists of following types of questions:

  • Multiple choice questions

We are going to read about a travel coach and information about its various requirements. You must read the passage carefully and try to answer all questions correctly. 

CLASSIC TOURS – COACH BREAK INFORMATION

We ask you to keep luggage down to one mediumsized suitcase per person, but a small holdall can also be taken on board the coach.

Seat Allocation

Requests for particular seats can be made on most coach breaks when booking, but since allocations are made on a first come first served basis, early booking is advisable. When bookings are made with us you will be offered the best seats that are available on the coach at that time.

Travel Documents

When you have paid your deposit we will send to you all the necessary documents and labels, so that you receive them in good time before the coach break departure date. Certain documents, for example air or boat tickets, may have to be retained and your driver or courier will then issue them to you at the relevant point.

Special Diets

If you require a special diet you must inform us at the time of booking with a copy of the diet. This will be notified to the hotel or hotels on your coach break, but on certain coach breaks the hotels used are tourist class and whilst offering value for money within the price range, they may not have the full facilities to cope with special diets. Any extra costs incurred must be paid to the hotel by yourself before departure from the hotel.

Accommodation

Many of our coach breaks now include, within the price, accommodation with private facilities, and this will be indicated on the coach break page. Other coach breaks have a limited number of rooms with private facilities which, subject to availability, can be reserved and guaranteed at the time of booking the supplementary charge shown in the price panel will be added to your account.

On any coach break there are only a limited number of single rooms. When a single room is available it may be subject to a supplementary charge and this will be shown on the brochure page.

Entertainment

Some of our hotels arrange additional entertainment which could include music, dancing, film shows, etc. The nature and frequency of the entertainment presented is at the discretion of the hotel and therefore not guaranteed and could be withdrawn if there is a lack of demand or insufficient numbers in the hotel.

Questions 9-14

Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.

9. If you want to sit at the front of the coach …

A ) ask when you get on the coach.

B ) arrive early on the departure date.

C ) book your seat well in advance.

D ) avoid travelling at peak times.

10. Your air tickets …

A ) will be sent to your departure point.

B ) must be collected before leaving.

C ) will be enclosed with other documents.

D ) may be held by your coach driver.

11. If you need a special diet you should …

A ) inform the hotel when you arrive.

B ) pay extra with the booking.

C ) tell the coach company.

D ) book tourist class.

12. It may be necessary to pay extra for …

A ) a bathroom.

B ) boat tickets.

C ) additional luggage.

D ) entertainment.

13. Entertainment is available …

A ) at all hotels.

B ) if there is the demand.

C ) upon request.

D ) for an additional cost.

14. With every booking Classic Tours guarantee you will be able to …

A ) request high quality meals.

B ) take hand luggage on the coach.

C ) use your own personal bathroom.

D ) see a film if you want to.

Answers with Explanation

Check out your CLASSIC TOURS – COACH BREAK INFORMATION reading answers below with locations and explanation given in the text.

(Suggested approach)

• Read the task rubric carefully. Only one option (A-D) is correct in each case.

• Read question 9 and the four options.

• Scan the headings in the text to see if any of them are about seating on the coach. The section entitled “Seat Allocation” refers specifically to this.

• Skim through that section of the text and find out what you have to do if you want to sit at the front of the coach.

• This paragraph focuses entirely on the importance of booking early if you want a particular seat. So the answer to question 9 is C. Although all the other options are possible, only C is stated in the text.

• Repeat this procedure with questions 10-14.

If you want to download CLASSIC TOURS – COACH BREAK INFORMATION reading pdf , please write your email in the comment section below. We’ll send it across at the speed of light.

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General Training Cambridge 18 Reading Test 2 IELTS Practice

Ielts general training reading practice test 2 cambridge 18, reading section 1 questions 1-14.

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-8.

Choosing the best sleeping bag

When choosing a sleeping bag, check what seasons it’s for, as well as how heavy it is if you’re backpacking. Also think about the filling. Natural duck down is very warm, has a longer lifespan and is easier to pack up, while synthetic materials are easier to clean, and they dry quicker and are cheaper.

A. Vango Fuse -12

This all-year-round sleeping bag combines natural duck down and a new synthetic fibre. The result is a bag that’s warm and weighs 1.5kg. There’s a water-resistant finish to protect it from moisture.

B. Outwell Campion Lux Double Sleeping Bag

This double sleeping bag — which is suitable for all seasons except winter — is soft and cosy, and there’s a handy pocket for essentials, located inside near the top. It also folds up remarkably small, given its size.

C. Nordisk Oscar +10

At just 350g, this sleeping bag is remarkably light, and as it’s synthetic, it’s very easy to maintain. The pack size is just 13x20cm, which makes it ideal for backpacking. It will work perfectly for summer trekking.

D. The Big Sleep 250GSM Single Cowl Sleeping

If you want a no—frills, budget sleeping bag that will last more than one summer, opt for this. It’s soft, comfy and simple to wash. Give yourself a bit of time to fit it back in the bag, though. Use it for spring, summer and autumn.

E. Jack Wolfskin Smoozip +3

We like the extra insulation in this sleeping bag around the areas that tend to feel the cold (head, chest and feet). And the hood is cosy enough to use as a pillow.

F. Vango Starwalker Dragon

This innovative, high-quality kids’ sleeping bag enables you to undo some zips and turn it into a fun, animal—themed coat. Once your youngster is ready for bed, simply zip the bottom back on and zip up the shoulders. Suitable for between 8 and 20 degrees Celsius.

G. Outwell Conqueror

This sleeping bag has an integrated down duvet and lots of space. What’s more, it packs up compactly and is easy to get back in the bag. It’s light but too big for a rucksack.

Questions 1-8

Look at the seven reviews of sleeping bags, A-G .

For which sleeping bag are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-G , in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

  • This sleeping bag is not very easy to pack up.
  • People can use this sleeping bag in any season.
  • This sleeping bag has been designed to ensure certain parts of the body are warm.
  • This sleeping bag contains a useful storage area.
  • People who do not want to spend much on a sleeping bag will find this one suits their needs.
  • This sleeping bag can also keep the user warm during the daytime.
  • People who wish to avoid carrying heavy weights should try this sleeping bag.
  • This sleeping bag contains two different types of material.

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.

The Spread the Word Life Writing Prize

We are delighted to announce The Spread the Word Life Writing Prize in association with Goldsmiths Writers’ Centre.

Competition Rules

Entries should be original works of life writing of no more than 5,000 words. The word count will be checked and entries longer than 5,000 words will be disqualified. There is no minimum word count.

For the purposes of the Prize, Life Writing is defined as non fiction and should be based on a significant portion from the author’s own experience. Traditional biographies, where the piece is only about the experience of someone else, are excluded.

Writers only submit one entry each. Multiple entries by the same author will result in only the first entry being considered for the Prize and any additional entries disqualified. Writers who have previously won or been highly commended in the Life Writing Prize are excluded from entering; otherwise, previous entrants may submit.

Entries must be the original, previously unpublished work of the entrant.

Graphic novel-style entries, where drawings or photographs accompany text, are welcome. Entries can be self-contained pieces of life writing, or the first 5,000 words of a longer piece of work.

The Life Writing Prize is open to writers aged over 18 and resident in the UK who are emerging writers, which means they have not previously published in print a full-length work. We define a full-length work as, for example, a complete work of fiction or non-fiction over 30,000 words.

Entries that are simultaneously submitted elsewhere are welcome

but please let us know as soon as possible if a piece is to be published elsewhere or has won another prize so we can disqualify it from the Life Writing Prize.

The winner will receive £1,500, publication on Spread the Word’s website, two years’ membership of the Royal Society of Literature, and a development meeting with an editor and an agent. Two highly commended entries will receive £500 and two mentoring sessions, a development meeting With an editor and an agent, and be published on the Spread the Word website.

Questions 9-14

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet, write

  • TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
  • FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
  • NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
  • Writers can submit an entry of fewer than 5,000 words for the Life Writing Prize.
  • Writers can choose to write about the life of a person they know.
  • People who have entered an earlier Life Writing competition without achieving any success may enter again.
  • Writers who are between 19 and 25 years old and in full-time education have won the prize in previous years.
  • Only one prize is awarded at the end of the Life Writing competition.
  • Previous winners of the Life Writing Prize have gone on to become successful published writers.

READING SECTION 2 Question 15-27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15—21.

Encouraging employees to be healthy: a guide for employers

Putting effort into employee wellness can reduce absenteeism and encourage better teamwork in the workplace, as well as increased productivity. Once you’ve devised a program, continue to assess the outcomes and regularly survey your team to gather feedback.

Focus on general prevention

Consider offering flu vaccinations on site and look at offering employees incentives on health insurance. Some companies arrange for someone who specialises in health issues, such as a doctor, to visit the workplace and speak to employees.

Encourage a healthier diet

Most of us know that eating healthily can help prevent future diseases, but many are not aware that unhealthy eating is linked to a 66 percent increased risk of loss of productivity. It may be necessary to consciously develop a healthy food and drink workplace policy, including a healthy catering policy. A simple thing to do is substitute soda in any on-site vending machines with water or juice. Also investigate the nutritional value of food supplied for team meetings and work events. Consider putting a bowl of fruit out in the staff room and urge everyone to help themselves for free. You can encourage employees to bring in healthy lunches from home by making sure that there is a fridge in the break room.

Encourage more exercise

Encouraging employees to exercise needn’t be expensive as there are plenty of low-cost methods available. These might include: installing racks for bikes in your staff car park; encouraging employees to take part in fun runs and charity events; suggesting ‘walking meetings’ where people discuss business as they get fresh air and exercise; and putting in showers to assist those who ride or run to the workplace. Some companies negotiate group rates for their employees at a nearby gym.

Improve mental health

Recent reports have shown that ignoring mental health costs Australian companies at least $11 billion a year. We all have a responsibility to look out for one another. Some ways you can do this in the workplace include: running employee surveys to get valuable information on morale in the workplace; training managers on mental health strategies; offering rebates so employees are compensated for counselling if required; and refusing to accept any bullying and unprofessional behaviour in your workplace.

Questions 15-21

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.

Encouraging employee health

  • improved efficiency
  • less 15 …………………..

Preventing problems

  • invite guests, e.g., a doctor, to give information
  • provide vaccinations
  • make healthier options available to replace 16 ………………………
  • have healthy food at meetings
  • offer 17 …………………… at no cost
  • provide a 18 …………………. for staff use
  • provide somewhere for employees to leave their 19 …………………..
  • provide 20 ………………… for workers who exercise

Mental health

  • give managers appropriate training
  • find out how employees feel at work by using 21 ………………..
  • do not tolerate bullying or other inappropriate behaviour

Read the text below and answer Questions 22-27.

Marama Beach Hotel and Bistro: guidelines for working in the kitchen

The health and well-being of customers and staff is our first priority, and we expect all staff to take every step possible to maintain food safety and work in a hygienic manner.

  • Long hair must be tied back and no rings may be worn if touching food.
  • The regulation chefs” shirts and trousers are to be freshly laundered before starting a new shift, along with aprons if they are worn.
  • Cross-contamination between raw and cooked food must be avoided. To this end. staff must use a clean board each time they out different types of food.
  • Staff should not touch money and then food without washing their hands in between.
  • In the case of illness or a skin problem, the staff member should inform the manager. Cuts on hands and arms must be properly wrapped or bandaged.

Safety rules

  • All injuries must be reported to management immediately.
  • Safety guards must not be altered in any way, and staff must always wear protective clothing and gloves when working with sharp, hot, cold or corrosive items or materials.
  • Loose clothing or jewellery must not be worn. Defective appliances must be turned off and not used — staff must not tw to fix them themselves.
  • Heavy boxes should be lifted carefully with bent knees and a straight back, holding the box close to the body.
  • Work areas should be clean and free of hazards.
  • Spills on the floor must be dealt with immediately.
  • Flammable liquids must be stored away from flames.
  • If storing containers of chemicals in the kitchen. they must have clear labels, so as to avoid any confusion about the contents.

Staff have 20 minutes of paid break time per 3 hours of work, during which time they may not leave the premises. Every staff member who works a shift exceeding 5 hours is entitled to a 30-minute unpaid break and free meals. However, please be aware that the kitchen may not always be able to provide this service, especially in peak times. Beverages kept in the storeroom may not be consumed by staff, but filtered water is provided free of charge in the staff room.

Questions 22-27

Complete the sentences below.

Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

  • Chefs’ uniforms and ………………… must be washed for every shift.
  • Kitchen staff need to change the …………………. when they start chopping another kind of food.
  • All staff must make sure their hands are clean after handling …………………… .
  • Workers in the kitchen should not attempt to repair …………………… .
  • ………………….. are required to identify any chemicals kept in the kitchen.
  • It is forbidden for kitchen staff to have drinks from the ……………………. .

READING SECTION 3 Questions 28-40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

A home-sewing revival: the return of clothkits

In the 1970s, Clothkits revolutionised home sewing. Later, a woman from Sussex, England, revived the nostalgic brand and brought it up to date

A . ‘I can’t remember many of the clothes I wore before I was six, but I have a vivid memory of a certain skirt whose patterns I can still trace in my mind. It was wraparound, with a belt that threaded through itself, decorated with cats in two shades of green. I wore it with a knitted red jersey my mum bought in a jumble sale, and brown sandals with flowers cut into the toes. It was 1979, and I was not yet five. I forgot about that skirt for a long time, but when a girlfriend mentioned the name Clothkits while we were chatting, it was as if a door suddenly opened on a moment in the past that resonated with vivid significance for me.’ The brand, founded in 1968, had by the late 1980s mostly vanished from people’s lives,

but by a combination of determination and luck Kay Mawer brought it back.

B . Clothkits was created by the designer Anne Kennedy, who came up with the ingenious idea of printing a pattern straight on to coloured fabric so that a paper pattern was not needed. It was accompanied by instructions that almost anyone could follow on how to cut the pieces out and sew them together. ‘I was rebelling against the formulaic lines of textile design at that time,’ Kennedy says. ‘My interest was in folk art and clothes that were simple to make as I had lots of unfinished sewing disasters in my cupboard.’ Clothkits has always embodied the spirit of the late 1960s and 1970s.

Its initial design was a dress in a geometric stripe in orange, pink, turquoise and purple. It cost 25 shillings (£1.25), and after it was featured in the Observer newspaper, Kennedy received more than £2,000 worth of orders. She ran the company from Lewes in Sussex, where at its peak it employed more than 400 people, selling to 44 countries worldwide. Sew-your—own kits formed the core of the business, supplemented by knitwear.

Kennedy’s children demonstrated the patterns by wearing them in photographs.

C . Kennedy sold the company in the late 1980s. There had been a few administrative problems with postal strikes and a new computer system, which back then took up an entire room, ‘but the times were changing as well,’ she says. ‘More women were going out to work and sewing less for their children.’ She sold the company to one of her suppliers, who then sold it on to Freeman’s, which ran Clothkits alongside its own brand for a while, using Kennedy’s impressive database, but its ethos as a big, corporate company did not sit well alongside the alternative and artistic values of Clothkits. In 1991, Clothkits was made dormant, and there the story might have ended, were it not for Mawer’s fascination with discovering what happened to Clothkits.

D . Mawer’s mother bought her a sewing machine when she was ten and taught her basic pattern-cutting and garment construction, encouraging her to experiment With colour and design by trial and error. The first garment Mawer made was a pair of trousers, which she made by tracing around an existing pair of trousers. in her late twenties, she spent five years working on digital and sculptural installations. ‘It was an amazing, mind-expanding experience, but I knew it was unlikely I could make a living as a practising artist.

I was definitely looking for a way that I could work in a creative industry with a commercial edge.

The experience inspired Mawer to return to education, studying for a degree in fine art at the University of Chichester. Her passion for vintage fabric, which her mother had encouraged her to start collecting, led her back to Clothkits, and from there to a journey into the heart of Freeman’s. Negotiations with the company took 18 months, but in October 2007 Clothkits was hers.

E . The ethos of Clothkits remains the same, and Mawer is proud that her fabric is printed either in London or the north of England, and that packaging is kept to an absolute minimum. ‘I wanted to feel that everyone involved in the brand, from design to production, was part of a process I could witness. I couldn’t see the point of manufacturing on the other side of the world, as that’s not what Clothkits has ever been about.

The revival of Clothkits

The revival of Clothkits has also, of course, coincided with a growing sense of dissatisfaction at our disposable society, and the resulting resurgence of interest in skills such as sewing and knitting. Making your own clothes gives you a greater appreciation of the craftsmanship in the construction of a garment,’ Mawer says. ‘When you know the process involved in making a skirt, you treasure it in a way you wouldn’t if you’d bought it from a mass- producing manufacturer.’

Cambridge 18 Reading Test 2

Questions 28-31

The text has five paragraphs, A-E .

Which paragraph mentions the following?

Write the correct letter, A-E , in boxes 28-31 on your answer sheet.

  • mention of Mawer’s desire to oversee all the stages of her business
  • reference to changing employment patterns among the general population
  • the date when Clothkits was originally established as a product
  • the benefits of sewing a garment and then wearing it

Questions 32-35

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D .

Write the correct letter in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet.

32 . in Paragraph A, the writer says that Kay Mawer was reminded about Clothkits by

  • a shop she visited.
  • a purchase she made.
  • an outfit someone was wearing.
  • a conversation with someone she knew.

33 . What does the reader learn about Clothkits in the 1960s and 1970s?

  • lts designs represented the attitudes of the time.
  • its products were only affordable for the wealthy.
  • its creator tried many times to launch her company.
  • its management was spread across numerous countries.

34 . Why did Clothkits close in 1991?

  • There were unexpected staffing problems.
  • The funding for sewing activities was inadequate.
  • Freeman’s was an unsuitable partner.
  • Records on Kennedy’s database were lost.

35 . What point does the writer make in Paragraph E?

  • Clothkits will reach more markets than in the past.
  • Clothkits will need bigger premises than in the past.
  • People are more concerned about throwing away items than in the past.
  • People do less sewing now than in the past.

Questions 36-40

Complete the summary below,

Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

The early days of Clothkits

Clothkits was started by a designer named Anne Kennedy. Her clothing company specialised in selling 36 ………………. with a pattern printed on it. This came with 37 ………………. , which meant that buyers were able to make their own garments.

The very first garment Anne Kennedy made was a multi-coloured striped dress with a 38 ………………… pattern. A 39 ……………….. article led to many orders for this from around the world. As the company grew, she increased her workforce, and also sold 40 ………………… as part of her business. She exhibited her designs using her children as models.

Cambridge IELTS General Training 18 Reading Test 2 Answers

Cambridge 18 reading test 2 ielts practice.

This page offers Cambridge 18 Reading test 2 for General Training Practice.

Download IELTS Reading pdf.

Disclaimer : IELTS is jointly owned by three organizations: the British Council, IDP: IELTS Australia, and Cambridge Assessment English. These organizations work together to develop and administer the test worldwide. Enjoy Cambridge IELTS Practice Tests and Books 1-18 with free lessons and Choosing the best sleeping bag Reading Answers. Book your IELTS Test on the official website of British Council or IDP or AEO . Once you have booked your IELTS Test with British Council, you will receive free access to last minute IELTS preparation course and free access to premium IELTS ready course. It includes 40 practice tests for IELTS Reading, writing, speaking, and listening.

General Training Cambridge 18 Reading Test 2 IELTS Practice

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IELTS General Training Reading: Cambridge 13 Test 1 Section 1; THE BEST SUITCASES & THE OXFORD SCHOOL OF DRAMA; with best solutions and explanations

This General Training IELTS Reading post focuses on solutions to  IELTS Cambridge 13 Reading Test 1 Section 1 that has two texts titled ‘ THE BEST SUITCASES’ & ‘THE OXFORD SCHOOL OF DRAMA’ . This is a targeted post for GT IELTS candidates who have big problems finding out and understanding Reading Answers in the GT module. This post can guide you the best to understand every Reading answer without much trouble. Finding out IELTS Reading answers is a steady process, and this post will assist you in this respect.

IELTS Cambridge 13 Test 1: GT Reading Module

Title of the text: the best suitcases.

Questions 1-7: Identifying information

[This question asks you to find information from the passage and write the number of the paragraph (A, B, C or D … .. ) in the answer sheet. Now, if the question is given in the very first part of the question set, I’d request you not to answer them. It’s mainly because this question will not follow any sequence, and so it will surely kill your time. Rather, you should answer all the other questions first. And just like List of Headings, only read the first two lines or last two lines of the expected paragraph initially. If you find the answers, you need not read the middle part. If you don’t find answers yet, you can skim the middle part of the paragraph. Keywords will be a useful matter here.]

Question 1: This suitcase is for those who wish to purchase expensive luggage.  

Keywords for this question: wish to purchase, expensive luggage,    

In the description of ‘Mulberry Scotchgrain’ suitcase, the first lines say, “ . … . .. this bag from the renowned fashion house is a truly indulgent buy . . . .. .”

Here, a truly indulgent buy = luxurious or expensive,

So, the answer is: B

Question 2: This suitcase is the right one for people who like to follow the latest fashion.   

Keywords for this question: like to follow, latest fashion,        

In the description of ‘Herschel Parcel’ suitcase, the final lines say, “ . … . .. stylish, and up to date as they come.”  

Here, stylish, and up to date = the latest fashion,

So, the answer is: F                  

Question 3: It is easy to choose one of these suitcases to match most clothing.  

Keywords for this question: match most clothing,   

In the description of ‘Tripp Holiday’ suitcase, lines 2-3 say, “ . … . .. They also come in a huge range of cheerful colours that should go with anything you choose to put on ,  .. . .. . .”  

Here, should go with anything you choose to put on = match most clothing,

So, the answer is: D   

Question 4: The manufacturer is confident that this suitcase will last a long time.  

Keywords for this question: manufacturer, confident, last a long time,  

In the description of ‘Eastpack Tranverz Holdall’ suitcase, lines 2-3 say, “ . … . .. the bag is guaranteed for 30 years . .. .. ..”  

Here, guaranteed for 30 years = confident that this suitcase will last a long time,

So, the answer is: E    

Question 5: Items in this suitcase will not be affected if it gets wet.  

Keywords for this question: items, will not be affected, if it get wet,  

In the description of ‘Briggs and Riley Weekender’ suitcase, line no. 2 says, “ . … . .. The strong nylon outer fabric is water and abrasion resistant ,  .. . . .. .”

Here, water .. . .. . resistant = will not be affected if it gets wet,   

So, the answer is: A

Question 6: This suitcase is of a useful, medium size.  

Keywords for this question: useful, medium size,     

Again, in the description of ‘Eastpack Tranverz Holdall’ suitcase, lines 1-2 say, “For those who want something in between an annual holiday suitcase and a weekend bag , this is a fantastic compromise. . .. ..”

Here, in between an annual holiday suitcase and a weekend bag = useful, medium size,

So, the answer is: E

Question 7: Those who want to be reminded of an earlier age of travel will like this suitcase.    

Keywords for this question: want to be reminded, earlier age of travel,  

In the description of ‘The Diplomat’ suitcase, lines 1-2 say, “Travel in style with this beautiful suitcase that goes back to the days when trains ran on steam and air travel was leisurely . .. .. ..”

Here, goes back to the days when trains ran on steam and air travel was leisurely = reminded of an earlier age of travel,

So, the answer is: G

Title of the text: THE OXFORD SCHOOL OF DRAMA

Questions 8-14: TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE The statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSE If there is no information on this – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 8: Students can begin the one-year course without any previous involvement in acting.     

Keywords for this question: can begin, one-year course, without, any previous involvement, acting,   

The answer can be found in the first paragraph, where the writer says, “This is an intensive course which is designed for those who have completed their academic studies and have some theatre or film experience already . .. .”

Here, have some theatre or film experience already = previous involvement in acting is a requirement here,

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 9: Students will act in a performance in front of their classmates at the end of the first term.     

Keywords for this question: will act, performance, in front of, classmates, end of, first term,  

Take a look at the paragraph named ‘Term One’.  The final lines say, “. .. . The term finishes with an internal production given for tutors and students .”

Here, an internal production given for tutors and students = Students will act in a performance in front of their classmates and teachers,

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 10: Family members may attend a performance during the second term.     

Keywords for this question: family members, may attend, performance, second term,

Have a look at the paragraph named ‘Term Two’.

We find no mention of family members here.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 11: Students are required to make a film on their own in the last term of the course.      

Keywords for this question: required, make a film, on their own, last term,  

Have a look at the paragraph named ‘Term Three’. Here the final lines say, “ . . .. . .. and the chance to act a short film recorded on location by a professional crew .”

Here, recorded . . . . by a professional crew = students DO NOT HAVE TO make a film on their own,

Question 12: In their first audition, candidates perform speeches they have worked on in advance.     

Keywords for this question: first audition, candidates, perform speeches, have worked on, in advance

In the ‘How to Apply’ section, take a look at third paragraph. Here, in lines 1-2, the writer says, “For your initial audition, you will need to prepare two contrasting speeches from plays,  . . . .”

Here, will need to prepare = have worked on in advance,

So the answer is: TRUE

Question 13: The Oxford School of Drama will send candidates details of local accommodation.     

Keywords for this question: The Oxford School of Drama, will send, candidates, details, local accommodation,

We do not find any information regarding local accommodation here.

So the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 14: Overseas candidates can do all their auditions via a digital link.

Keywords for this question: Overseas candiates, can do, all their auditions, via, digital link,  

In the ‘How to Apply’ section, take a look at final paragraph. It says, “If you are applying from overseas, you will be able to submit your first audition by means of DVD, YouTube or link to a secure website . You will be invited to submit this once we have received your application form and audition fee. If you are successful in your first audition, you will be invited to attend future auditions here at the school . . . ..”

Here, If you are successful in your first audition, you will be invited to attend future auditions here at the school means that overseas candidates CANNOT do ALL their auditions via a digital link; they have to come to the school for future auditions.

So the answer is: FALSE

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Academic IELTS Reading: Test 1 Reading passage 3; To catch a king; with best solutions and explanations

This Academic IELTS Reading post focuses on solutions to an IELTS Reading Test 1 Reading Passage 3 titled ‘To catch a king’. This is a targeted post for IELTS candidates who have great problems finding out and understanding Reading Answers in the AC module. This post can guide you the best to understand every Reading answer […]

IELTS General Training Reading: Test 2 Section 1; How to choose your builder & Island adventure activities; with complete solutions and best explanations

IELTS General Training Reading: Test 2 Section 1; How to choose your builder & Island adventure activities; with complete solutions and best explanations

This General Training IELTS Reading post focuses on solutions to IELTS Cambridge 16 Reading Test 2 Section 1 which has two texts titled ‘How to choose your builder’ & ‘Island adventure activities’. This is a targeted post for GT IELTS candidates who have big problems finding out and understanding Reading Answers in the GT module. This […]

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TV Addiction 1

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Solution for: TV Addiction 1

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Exam Review

Highlight

The amount of time people spend watching television is astonishing. On average, individuals in the industrialized world devote three hours a day to the pursuit – fully half of their leisure time, and more than on any single activity save work and sleep. At this rate, someone who lives to 75 would spend nine years in front of the tube. To some commentators, this devotion means simply that people enjoy TV and make a conscious decision to watch it. But if that is the whole story, why do so many people experience misgivings about how much they view? In Gallup polls in 1992 and 1999, two out of five adult respondents and seven out of 10 teenagers said they spent too much time watching TV. Other surveys have consistently shown that roughly 10 percent of adults calls themselves TV addicts.

To study people’s reactions to TV, researches have undertaken laboratory experiments in which they have monitored the brain waves (using an electroencephalograph, or EEG) to track behavior and emotion in the normal course of life, as opposed to the artificial conditions of the lab. Participants carried a beeper, and we signaled them six to eight times a day, at random, over the period of a week; whenever they heard the beep, they wrote down what they were doing and how they were feeling using a standardized scorecard.

As one might expect, people who were watching TV when we beeped them reported feeling relaxed and passive. The EEG studies similarly show less mental stimulation, as measured by alpha brain-wave production, during viewing than during reading. What is more surprising is that the sense of relaxation ends when the set is turned off, but the feelings of passivity and lowered alertness continue. Survey participants say they have more difficulty concentrating after viewing than before. In contrast, they rarely indicate such difficulty after reading. After playing sports or engaging in hobbies, people report improvements in mood. After watching TV, people’s moods are about the same or worse than before. That may be because of viewers’ vague learned sense that they will feel less relaxed if they stop viewing. So they tend not to turn the set-off. Viewing begets more viewing which is the same as the experience of habit-forming drugs. Thus, the irony of TV: people watch a great deal longer than they plan to, even though prolonged viewing is less rewarding. In our ESM studies the longer people sat in front of the set, the less satisfaction they said they derived from it. For some, a twinge of unease or guilt that they aren’t doing something more productive may also accompany and depreciate the enjoyment of prolonged viewing. Researchers in Japan, the U.K. and the U.S. have found that this guilt occurs much more among middle-class viewers than among less affluent ones.

What is it about TV that has such a hold on us? In part, the attraction seems to spring from our biological ‘orienting response.’ First described by Ivan Pavlov in 1927, the orienting response is our instinctive visual or auditory reaction to any sudden or novel stimulus. It is part of our evolutionary heritage, a built-in sensitivity to movement and potential predatory threats. In 1986 Byron Reeves of Stanford University, Esther Thorson of the University of Missouri and their colleagues began to study whether the simple formal features of television – cuts, edits, zooms, pans, sudden noises – activate the orienting response, thereby keeping attention on the screen. By watching how brain waves were affected by formal features, the researchers concluded that these stylistic tricks can indeed trigger involuntary responses and ‘derive their attentional value through the evolutionary significance of detecting movement… It is the form, not the content, of television that is unique.’

The natural attraction to television’s sound and the light starts very early in life. Dafna Lemish of Tel Aviv University has described babies at six to eight weeks attending to television. We have observed slightly older infants who, when lying on their backs on the floor, crane their necks around 180 degrees to catch what light through yonder window breaks. This inclination suggests how deeply rooted the orienting response is.

The Experience Sampling Method permitted us to look closely at most every domain of everyday life: working, eating, reading, talking to friends, playing a sport, and so on. We found that heavy viewers report feeling significantly more anxious and less happy than light viewers do in unstructured situations, such as doing nothing, daydreaming or waiting in line. The difference widens when the viewer is alone. Subsequently, Robert D. McIlwraith of the University of Manitoba extensively studies those who called themselves TV addicts on surveys. On a measure called the Short Imaginal Processes Inventory (SIPI), he found that the self-described addicts are more easily bored and distracted and have poorer attentional control than the non-addicts. The addicts said they used TV to distract themselves from unpleasant thoughts and to fill time. Other studies over the years have shown that heavy viewers are less likely to participate in community activities and sports and are more likely to be obese than moderate viewers or non-viewers.

More than 25 years ago psychologist Tannis M. MacBeth Williams of the University of British Columbia studied a mountain community that had no television until cable finally arrived. Over time, both adults and children in the town became less creative in problem-solving, less able to persevere at tasks, and less tolerant of unstructured time.

Nearly 40 years ago Gary A. Steiner of the University of Chicago collected fascinating individual accounts of families whose set had broken. In experiments, families have volunteered or been paid to stop viewing, typically for a week or a month. Some fought, verbally and physically. In a review of these could-turkey studies, Charles Winick of the City University of New York concluded: ‘The first three or four days for most persons were the worst, even in many homes where the viewing was minimal and where there were other ongoing activities. In over half of all the households, during these first few days of loss, the regular routines were disrupted, family members had difficulties in dealing with the newly available time, anxiety and aggressions were expressed…. By the second week, a move toward adaptation to the situation was common.’ Unfortunately, researchers have yet to flesh out these anecdotes; no one has systematically gathered statistics on the prevalence of these withdrawal symptoms.

Even though TV does seem to meet the criteria for substance dependence, not all researchers would go so far as to call TV addictive. McIlwraith said in 1988 that ‘displacement of other activities by television may be socially significant but still fall short of the clinical requirement of significant impairment.’ He argued that a new category of ‘TV addiction’ may not be necessary if heavy viewing stems from conditions such as depression and social phobia. Nevertheless, whether or not we formally diagnose someone as TV-dependent, millions of people sense that they cannot readily control the amount of television they watch.

Questions 1-5

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage? In boxes  1-5  on your answer sheet, write

TRUE                if the statement is true

FALSE               if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN     if the information is not given in the passage

1 TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN    Study shows that males are more likely to be addicted to TV than females. Answer: NOT GIVEN

2 TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN    Greater improvements in mood are experienced after watching TV than playing sports. Answer: FALSE

3 TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN    TV addiction works in similar ways as drugs. Answer: TRUE

4 TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN    It is reported that people’s satisfaction is in proportion to the time they spend watching TV. Answer: FALSE

5 TRUE FALSE NOT GIVEN    Middle-class viewers are more likely to feel guilty about watching TV than the poor. Answer: TRUE

Questions 6-10

Look at the following researchers (Questions 6-10) and the list of statements below. Match each researcher with the correct statements. Write the correct letter  A-H  in boxes 6-10  on your answer sheets.

6 A B C D E F G H    Byron Reeves and Esther Thorson Answer: F

7 A B C D E F G H    Dafna Lemish Answer: B

8 A B C D E F G H    Robert D. McIlwraith Answer: G

9 A B C D E F G H    Tannis M. MacBeth Williams Answer: C

10 A B C D E F G H    Charles Winick Answer: H

List of Statements

A   Audiences would get hypnotized from viewing too much television.

B   People have been sensitive to the TV signals since a younger age.

C   People are less likely to accomplish their work with television.

D   A handful of studies have attempted to study other types of media addiction.

E   The addictive power of television could probably minimize the problems.

F   Various media formal characters stimulate people’s reaction on the screen.

G   People who believe themselves to be TV addicts are less likely to join in the group activities.

H   It is hard for people to accept life without a TV at the beginning.

Questions 11-13

Choose the correct letter  A ,  B ,  C  or  D .

Write the correct letter in boxes  11-13  on your answer sheet.

11.  People in the industrialized world

A    devote ten hours watching TV on average

B    spend more time on TV than other entertainment

C    call themselves TV addicts.

D    enjoy working best. Answer: B

12.  When compared with light viewers, heavy viewers

A    like playing sport more than reading.

B    feel relaxed after watching TV.

C    spend more time in daydreaming.

D    are more easily bored while waiting in line. Answer: D

13.  Which of the following statements is true about the family experiment?

A    Not all subjects participate in the experiment for free.

B    There has been complete gathered data.

C    People are prevented from other activities during the experiment.

D    People can not adapt to the situation until the end. Answer: A

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tv studio tour gt reading answers

GT Reading Answers

Parking for the museum is available in front of the museum building, westley town hall parking, westley university department of media, drayton university business study centre general reading answers.

1 FALSE 21 E 2 NOT GIVEN 22 D 3 FALSE 23 A 4 TRUE 24 B 5 NOT GIVEN 25 G 6 FALSE 26 F 7 FALSE 27 C 8 FALSE 28 MC 9 TRUE 29 SK 10 NOT GIVEN 30 PP 11 10% / ten percent 31 TH 12 September 14th 32 PL …

Parking for the museum is available in front of the museum building, Westley Town Hall Parking, Westley University Department of Media, Drayton University Business Study Centre General Reading Answers Read More »

Where can you find the information help desk?, Parking and Transport Information for Visitors, Bootwise – September Catalogue, Woodgreen Neighbourhood Watch – November News Bulletin, PRODUCING SUGAR General Reading Answers

1 Parking area number 21 roadworthy 2 North car park 22 (valuable) presents 3 Credit cards 23 tradesmen and workers 4 £72 24 C 5 Traffic inspector 25 C 6 The (bus) driver 26 D 7 Wilderness 27 NOT GIVEN 8 Atlas 28 TRUE 9 Nevis 29 FALSE 10 Atlas 30 TRUE 11 Mountain Kings …

Where can you find the information help desk?, Parking and Transport Information for Visitors, Bootwise – September Catalogue, Woodgreen Neighbourhood Watch – November News Bulletin, PRODUCING SUGAR General Reading Answers Read More »

What should patients drink every time they take Penibio?, Woodgreen Secondary School Parent Teacher Association, Westley University Internet Cafe, The Game of Tennis General Reading Answers

1 poor kidney function 21 NO 2 4 22 NOT GIVEN 3 25 C 23 NO 4 30 minutes 24 YES 5 moisture 25 YES 6 expiry date 26 NOT GIVEN 7 every 6 hours 27 YES 8 FALSE 28 viii 9 FALSE 29 i 10 TRUE 30 xi 11 NOT GIVEN 31 ix 12 …

What should patients drink every time they take Penibio?, Woodgreen Secondary School Parent Teacher Association, Westley University Internet Cafe, The Game of Tennis General Reading Answers Read More »

The Drain Doctor, LONDON BUS DRIVERS WANTED, WESTLEY UNIVERSITY OPEN DAY, The Golden Eagles of Scotland General Reading Answers

1 A + C 21 NO 2 D 22 YES 3 E 23 YES 4 A + E 24 NOT GIVEN 5 A 25 symptoms 6 E 26 doctor 7 TRUE 27 vii 8 FALSE 28 ix 9 NOT GIVEN 29 i 10 FALSE 30 iii 11 25%/a quarter/1⁄4 31 xi 12 Relston Street 32 …

The Drain Doctor, LONDON BUS DRIVERS WANTED, WESTLEY UNIVERSITY OPEN DAY, The Golden Eagles of Scotland General Reading Answers Read More »

This leisure activity will not help you keep fit, Staines University, Ontario – Campuses, Why Africa continues to go hungry General Reading Answers

1 B 21 PTAs 2 D 22 LEA booklet 3 A 23 School prospectus 4 A 24 NOT GIVEN 5 B 25 FALSE 6 B 26 TRUE 7 C 27 xi 8 E 28 i 9 B 29 ix 10 D 30 ii 11 A 31 vii 12 F 32 v 13 C 33 NOT …

This leisure activity will not help you keep fit, Staines University, Ontario – Campuses, Why Africa continues to go hungry General Reading Answers Read More »

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General IELTS Reading Test 2 Answers

Dear students, here are the IELTSFever General IELTS Reading Practice Test 2 Answers ( Events taking place at tour Historic Houses in Sydney, City Cycle Guide & Mitchell Collage, Become a Professional Barista, A first Aid Course, Unlocking the history of locks and keys )

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This is the End IELTSFever General  IELTS Reading Practice Test Answers ( Events taking place at tour Historic Houses in Sydney, City Cycle Guide & Mitchell Collage, Become a Professional Barista, A first Aid Course, Unlocking the history of locks and keys ) 

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Can you please explain 4th Answer. I think it’s wrong. Correct Answer is E.

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Questions 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-6

Harvey’s Storage

Harvey’s Storage is a well-established independent company. We are centrally located in the city and provide excellent facilities for all your storage requirements.

We provide safe and secure units for both long- and short-term storage dependent on your needs. Our rates are competitive and tailored to your specific requirements and your choice of storage unit. Heavy-duty locks and keys are provided to all of our customers and included in the prices listed. You can hire the unit with the storage capacity you need, for the period of time that the storage is required, in a sound and secure environment, monitored by CCTV. With 24-hour access, customers can deliver and collect items when it is convenient to do so, unrestricted by business or office hours. Tarmac roadways allow customers to park cars and lorries immediately outside their units, minimising the effort required to collect or drop items off.

Household storage Self-storage is ideal for families or individuals with either a short- or long-term need to store their belongings. Some of our clients are de-cluttering, or they may be getting their property decorated, or planning to go abroad for a time.

tv studio tour gt reading answers

Student storage You may be travelling or going home to see family and friends in the vacation, or need time to find a place to stay. You may want to store all your books and personal items, or just a few boxes or a musical instrument. We offer no-nonsense competitive pricing with flexible hire periods and with no hidden extras. We can provide you with short- or long-term affordable hire in a safe and secure environment. You are responsible for organising transport but we can also recommend local van and driver hire companies.

Business storage Free up your expensive retail space with affordable self-storage. We have three different business storage centres to choose from so you can choose the location that is most convenient for you.

Questions 1-6

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write?

TRUE               if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE              if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN    if there is no information on this

1    There is an extra charge for locks and keys.

2    It is possible to arrange to share a storage unit with someone else.

3    You can pick up your property from the storage unit during the night-time.

4    You can drive your vehicle right next to your storage unit.

5    Students’ possessions can only be stored during vacation periods.

6    The storage company will collect and deliver students’ property.

Read the text below and answer Questions 7-14.

Local museums

A   Whittlesey Museum

The museum is located in the Old Town Hall, which was originally built to house horse-drawn fire engines. It has eight rooms, and the exhibits cover topics such as archive photographs, costume, domestic life and local celebrities.

B   Octavia Hill’s Birthplace House

Built in 1740, this is the birthplace of pioneer social reformer Octavia Hill, who was active in the late 19th and early 20th centuries in social housing and the arts, as well as in conservation issues. Visitors are taken on a guided tour and are then free to explore the gardens.

C   Chatteris Museum

The old market town of Chatteris was largely rebuilt, after two serious fires in 1706 and 1864 destroyed many of the town’s ancient buildings. The museum’s exhibits illustrate traditional aspects of the life of local farmers as well as the railway boom of the 19th century. The museum has a touch-screen kiosk which contains over 9,000 historic photographs and texts, reproductions of which can be made on request.

D   March and District Museum

Located in the middle of the market town of March, the museum is housed in a former school built in 1851. Its wide-ranging collections include reconstructions of an early 20th-century kitchen, sitting room and nursery. There is also an interesting display of historic cameras and radios, and a medal which was awarded to train driver Ben Gimbert for his bravery in preventing loss of life when a train full of explosives caught fire in 1944.

E   Wisbech and Fenland Museum

This 19th-century gem holds collections from around the world including Ancient Egypt. Its library, which is open to the public on the first Saturday of each month, contains the manuscript of Great Expectations by the 19th-century novelist Charles Dickens, and the Research Room can be booked for researching local records.

Questions 7-14

Look at the five descriptions of museum, A-E , in one area of England.

For which museum are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-E , in boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet.

NB    You may use any letter more than once.

7    There are exhibits related to the history of agriculture in the region.

8    Equipment for putting out fires used to be kept in this building.

9    You can find information on the rise of one type of transport.

10    There are things to see both inside and outside.

11    It is possible to obtain copies of old pictures and documents.

12    On certain days you can see an original work by a writer of fiction.

13    Someone who was interested in environmental matters lived here for a time.

14    This museum has an exhibit related to a heroic achievement.

Questions 15-27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20

Workplace health and safety considerations for plumbers

Like many trades, plumbing can be a dangerous job. It is important to take all reasonably practicable measure to keep customers and yourself incident and injury free.

Biohazard waste

Plumbers regularly come into contact with biohazard waste. It’s the nature of the job, but that doesn’t mean you should be complacent about it. According to Safe Work Australia, communicable diseases from work-related exposures to biological hazards such as sewage have been estimated to cause 320,000 deaths across the globe each year. In addition to this, plumbers are regularly exposed to other biohazards such as mould, bacteria and algae. Don’t risk it – make sure appropriate clothing and equipment is used.

Confined spaces

Plumbers may spend much of their time working in confined spaces, where they are at risk from contaminants, including airborne gases, vapours and dusts, that may cause injury from fire or explosion. They may also be exposed to high concentration of airborne contaminants that may be harmful to health. For example, one plumber was fined $220,000 after an employee suffered from carbon-monoxide poisoning. Another potential hazard for plumbers in confined spaces is that of drowning, if water sources are not adequately cut off.

The Safe Work Australia confined spaces code of practice outlines the necessary steps and precautions for avoiding illness and injury.

Electricity

The Master Plumbers’ Association calls electricity ‘plumbing’s hidden killer’. Metal pipes are often conductive and so gloves which provide insulation should form part of a plumber’s tool kit, as should a plumbing voltage monitor and a volt tester. Gloves should be checked prior to every use and replaced every 12 to 14 months. Electrical equipment like bridging conductors should be regularly checked, with appropriate tags on the equipment to verify its safety. The project should be stopped immediately if there is any sign of electricity, so that the power can be disconnected by a qualified electrician prior to continuing work.

Questions 15-20

Complete the table below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27

How to manage flexible working with your employees.

There is no denying that flexible working has grown enormously in recent years. It does, however, require careful management.

When it comes to implementing flexible working one word is key: trust. All flexible workers should be trusted and given well-defined objectives from the start and their contribution should be assessed according to their output, as opposed to the time they spend on the job. It can be a big step to implement such as change in your business, so if you are slightly cautious then I recommend perhaps setting up an end-of-the-day review to see how much progress has been made. As all parties find their feet with the new set-up, this contact can slowly be reduced.

In my eyes, it is also vital that there is shared calendar access for everyone so that people can see where their colleagues are each day. This way if they need to catch up with someone they can plan when to do so. Technology now exists to enable employees to stay in touch with other members of staff and external partners. iMeet, for example, is a tool which allows all forms of collaboration for remote working, from video conferencing, live chat and file sharing to screen sharing. The new breed of worker is therefore fully equipped to work productively away from the office, and can still feel like they’re in the same room as others when necessary.

In my experience, employees are often more productive working at home as they can work the exact hours they want and do not have to cope with distraction caused by other employees. Being outside the confines of the office walls also appears to foster creativity. In addition, we find staff are more motivated as they have a better work-life balance. In terms of the business, we find this helps with top talent recruitment and staff retention, and a happy workforce is a more successful one.

Questions 21-27

Complete the notes below.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

Flexible working

How to organise flexible working

●   trust your employees

●   provide them with clear 21 …………….

●   base measurements of performance on their output

●   initially, have a 22 …………….. of progress each day

●   make sure a 23 ………………. Is accessible to give details of colleague locations.

●   use a program such as iMeet to encourage different types of 24 ………………. between workers

Benefits of flexibility

●   greater productivity

●   less 25 ……………… from colleagues

●   increase in 26 ………………

●   more motivated staff

●   greater success for the company with staff recruitment and 27 ………………

Questions 28-40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

Questions 28-33

The text has six sections, A-F .

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-vii , in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i               Developing an item that appears true to life

ii              Extending the project to other endangered species

iii             A short but intensive investigation with longer-term follow-up

iv             Problems facing sea turtles at a global level

v              Collection of eggs and their possible onward routes

vi             Intensive and large-scale poaching in one location

vii            Why catching the poachers may not solve the problem

28    Section A

29    Section B

30    Section C

31    Section D

32    Section E

33    Section F

Preventing the theft of turtle eggs

Conservationists and law enforcement have struggled to prevent wildlife trafficking. But could some plastic eggs and GPS trackers change the game?

Humans have been eating sea turtle eggs (and killing adult turtles for meat) for millennia. However, as human populations exploded and as sea turtles began to confront additional threats such as intensive fishing, beach development and climate change, sea turtle populations declined precipitously. Today, all but one of the world’s seven species of sea turtles are considered threatened according to the IUCN* Red List. And the one that’s not – the flatback turtle – is listed as data deficient, which means scientists simply don’t know how it’s doing.

One major problem is that every year millions of sea turtle eggs are illegally taken by poachers for sale on the black market. The situation is particularly serious in Nicaragua, in Central America, which is home to four sea turtle species.

Kim Williams-Guillen, who works for conservation body Paso Pacifico, described the poaching of sea turtle nests on the beaches of Nicaragua as ‘uncontrolled, unregulated, extensive and contested’. Even the best-protected beaches are plundered to some extent and it’s not uncommon to see poachers digging up nests just meters from tourists watching sea turtles laying their clutch at night, she said. This poaching becomes particularly frenzied during the arribadas – mass laying events where thousands of turtles nest on the same beach for a single night in a biological strategy to overwhelm natural predators.

‘Even with armed guards, the numbers of poachers overwhelm military personnel by ten to twenty to one,’ Williams-Guillen said. ‘Although many poachers are locals with limited resources, during these arribadas there are influxes of gangs of poachers from larger cities outside local communities. These are not just local poor people without other options.’

But to protect the country’s sea turtles, Williams-Guillen said conservationists shouldn’t just depend on catching low-level operators. ‘If one poacher decides to stop, another one will just step into his place… we need to know more about the middlemen and people higher up in the distribution chain,’ she said.

Paso Pacifico’s solution is the creation of high-tech sea turtle eggs: fake eggs convincingly crafted to look like the real thing, but which contain GPS tracking devices. These have the potential to reveal the destination markets for trafficked sea turtle eggs.

Making convincing sea turtle eggs is not easy, and Paso Pacifico is still working on perfecting a prototype. In particular, it’s proving quite problematic to create the right texture, since sea turtle eggs are not covered in a hard shell like those of birds, but are quite flexible.

So Paso Pacifico brought in Lauren Wilde, a special effects artist in the US, to create a convincing outer shell. First, Wilde had to get her hands on the real thing. Since it’s illegal to send sea turtle eggs over the border, Wilde is using land turtle eggs from California. ‘It was really eye opening and important for me to feel these eggs and how the shell bends a little,’ she said.

To get the GPS device inside the shell, Paso Pacifico is using 3D printers to make a plastic ball which will then have a GPS transmitter fitted inside. This will take the place of the embryo inside the shell. Lastly the fake shells will be sealed with silicone, waterproofing them.

Sea turtles on average lay around 100 eggs in a nest, and once the fake eggs are finished they will be slipped in with the real ones. Williams-Guillen said it might even be possible to deliver fake eggs into nests while poachers are at work. Wary of tourists, poachers will often back off if strangers come near and then return when they have gone. ‘It would be pretty easy to drop an egg in the dark into a nest they have been digging up,’ she said.

Once the poacher picks up the fake egg along with the real ones, conservationists and law enforcement agents will be able to track them. Experts believe most of the stolen eggs eventually make their way out of Nicaragua, possibly to El Salvador or Guatemala. However, there is also growing concern that sea turtle eggs from Central America are actually heading to the USA, from where they are sold on to other countries around the world.

To date, Paso Pacifico has yet to put a single fake egg in a nest. But Williams-Guillen said she isn’t too concerned that publicity for their scheme will result in poachers looking for the eggs. ‘The vast majority of the poaching is happening at night, so already it is hard to tell [the eggs] apart, and at this point, poachers and middlemen are not closely inspecting eggs, but rather shoving them into a sack as quickly as possible.’

Of course, poachers will eventually become aware of the prospect of fake eggs among the real ones – especially when customers try to bite into an egg and break their teeth on the GPS transmitter instead. So, Paso Pacifico plans to do a massive deployment of as many fakes as possible to gather a lot of data before poachers get wise.

Knowing where the eggs go will allow conservationists and law enforcement agents to focus their resources on the right places – whether it be through awareness-building campaigns or crackdowns on illegal sellers. And eventually Paso Pacifico hopes to share the technology with interested parties around the world.

——

*IUCN: International Union for Conservation of Nature

Questions 34-37

Choose the correct letter, A , B , C or D .

Write the correct letter in boxes 34-37 on your answer sheet.

34    What does the writer suggest about the flatback turtle?

A    It could be as severely threatened as other turtles.

B    It has been neglected by scientists in the past.

C    It is in less danger than some other species.

D    It should be removed from the IUCN Red List.

35    Williams-Guillen says that the poaching of sea turtle eggs in Nicaragua

A    is mainly carried out by local people.

B    may be encouraged by the presence of tourists.

C    sometimes has a highly organised structure.

D    can only be controlled by the use of armed guards.

36    In Section E, Williams-Guillen says that one way to encourage poachers to take the fake eggs is to

A    make fake nests and put the eggs into them.

B    put them in nests with just a few real eggs.

C    distract the poachers after the fake eggs have been put in the nests.

D    put them in nests that the poachers have started to dig up.

37    It is planned to use a large number of fake eggs at the beginning because

A    some of the fake eggs may be missed by the poachers.

B    it may not be possible to continue the project indefinitely.

C    some eggs may be hidden in the sand.

D    it may not be feasible to fund long-term research.

Questions 38-40

Complete the summary below.

Write your answers in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

Making convincing sea turtle eggs

One difficulty in creating a fake sea turtle egg is to get the appropriate texture for the shell. Unlike a bird’s egg, a turtle’s egg has a shell which is 38 ……………… . Lauren Wilde has studied eggs from Californian turtles that live on 39 ……………… to create a realistic reproduction of the shell. A GPS device will then be placed inside a 40 …………….. in the fake shell. Finally, silicone will be applied to the shell to make it waterproof.

IELTS General Reading Test 01

Ielts general reading test 03, answer ielts general reading test 02.

2   NOT GIVEN

15   sewage

16   poisoning

17   drowning

18   gloves

20   disconnected

21   objectives

22   review

23   calendar

24   collaboration

25   distraction

26   creativity

27   retention

38   flexible

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Cambridge 17 IELTS General Reading Test 1

SECTION 1 Questions 1-14

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-5.

Arriving in Singapore by plane

Baggage claim

You can refer to the flight information television screens on Level Two for the allocation of your baggage claim belt. Free trolleys are available near all baggage claim belts and our friendly porters are at your service on request. Should you require their assistance with carrying luggage, please ask at the Information Desk. You can proceed to the Lost and Found Counter for advice if you cannot find your baggage or would like to report damaged baggage.

Customs clearance

Please use the Green Channel for your baggage clearance if you do not have controlled or prohibited items to declare, or have not exceeded your Duty-Free Concession. Please use the Red Channel if you have items to declare or are in doubt.

Hotel reservations

You can make these at the Hotel Reservation Counter with a S$10.00 per reservation deposit, deductible from your hotel bill at the end of your stay. These counters do not handle the transit hotels. For these, go to the Reception Desk on Level Three.

Read the text below and answer Questions 6-10.

Singapore Airport

Goods and Services Tax (GST) relief

A 3% Goods and Services Tax (GST) is levied on the sale of all goods imported into Singapore. If you are a visitor, returning citizen or permanent resident of Singapore, you may be granted GST relief under certain conditions.

Tax-free shopping

As a tourist or visitor, you can apply for a refund at Customs of the 3% GST on goods purchased during your stay in Singapore, provided you:

  • shop at stores with the ‘Tax Free Shopping’ logo
  • spend a minimum amount of S$100 at any one shop, and at least S$300 in total
  • obtain a Global Refund Cheque from the place of purchase.

When collecting your refund you have several choices — cash, bank Cheque, or Changi Airport Shopping Voucher, which comes with an additional 10% in value.

Please note that a handling fee will be deducted from the GST amount for the refund service.

Read the text below and answer Questions 11-14.

Singapore Guide : A walk around the Orchard Road district

The route begins just opposite the Orchard MRT station at the Singapore Marriott Hotel. This eye-catching landmark has a distinctive Chinese-styled green roof and red pillars.

In 1958 a former lace—pedlar, C. K. Tang, foresaw that the area could become a bustling shopping centre, since residents in the neighbouring Tanglin district had to pass enroute to work at the commercial centre, Raffles Place. So with roof tiles brought in from his hometown in the Swatow province of China, Tang built a department store on what was then a cheap, isolated plot of land. The plot faced a cemetery, which is considered a bad omen in Chinese culture. His foresight paid off. Today, Tangs is one of Singapore’s most prominent and recognised home grown department stores, proudly showcasing local fashion and household products. Even when the original building was torn down in 1982 to give way to the present superstore and skyscraper hotel, it retained its unique Chinese architecture.

From the foyer at Tangs, turn left to Lucky Plaza. One of the oldest along Orchard Road, this mall is a perennial favourite with shoppers. Be amazed by the staggering array of cosmetics, jewellery, leather goods and hi-fi equipment. Prices, though, are not always fixed, so bring along a good set of bargaining skills.

Coming out of Lucky Plaza, continue along Orchard Road and enter the Paragon Shopping Centre. Apart from a wide range of shops and restaurants, there is also a Singapore Airlines Service Centre to facilitate bookings and offer information to tourists. Also available are a number of computer terminals for self-booking. Check out the life-sized sculptures by a well known Taiwanese sculptor, Sun Yu-li, outside the shopping centre. These were inspired by depictions of life in rock paintings dating back 20,000 years ago in Inner Mongolia.

SECTION 2 Questions 15-27

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

Writing a personal CV that will attract employers

You are unique. No-one has the same behavioural make-up that you have. Likewise, everyone’s career history is also unique. Why is it then that a great many CVs are mostly descriptions of past jobs or standard CV templates and give away very little about the individual behind the CV? It’s almost as if the majority of job seekers are afraid to let their own personality shine through.

Perhaps in a corporate world where everyone feels they have to have the same professional image — dress in dark, formal suits, for example — the same is subconsciously felt to be true for CV writing. But there’s a difficulty here: you want your CV to stand out and yet at the same time are afraid of saying anything that might make you stand out? The problem with the above thinking is painfully clear. Your CV will be dull, and likely to be swiftly passed over by an employer. Surely it is much better to be brave? To define your personal brand, as marketers might say. This isn’t about making unsupportable statements: it’s about choosing words that describe the qualities that drive your success. In short, what makes you good at your job.

Writing about oneself can sometimes be difficult. It involves the ability to see yourself from different people’s viewpoints. Working with a professional CV writer is one way to achieve that and to present your character positively within a CV. Asking a colleague that you trust is also a good way to find out how others see your strengths.

Try not to use classic recruitment clichés. Everyone says they have great. ‘communication’ or ‘organisational’ skills. This gets ignored by recruiters. So, instead think carefully about who you are and what you bring and then. try to describe yourself. In that way you give recruiters something original to engage With, something that grabs their attention.

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

The value of being organised at work

Being organised is one of the most effective skills a businessperson can acquire because when were organised. we think more clearly. We’re in tune With our targets and know how to reach them. Here are my top tips to bring order to your business life:

Organise your workspace

Don‘t underestimate time lost or stress caused from an inefficient working environment. To restore order:

  • Cut down documents and stationery to the bare essentials. Be ruthless and remove anything that doesn’t directly serve a function in your day-to-day activity. One or two carefully selected photos to make your desk feel like home are fine, but avoid too many.
  • Create locations where you will keep all your work materials to make retrieval easy. Do this logically based on where you tend to use the items; for example, store spare copy paper near the printer. Move outside your immediate reach anything you use infrequently. Always return items once you have used them so they’ll be where you expect them next time.
  • Frustration ensues when you’re searching for a client proposal, but it’s buried among random papers. Eliminate desktop chaos by using trays, magazine files, or whatever you fancy and add clear labels such as ‘In’, ‘Out’, ‘For Action’, ‘Current Projects’ or other relevant categories.
  • Be brutally honest about What you must keep. Studies suggest that 80% of what we file is never accessed again. Ask: do I know of a tax or legal requirement for retaining it? Why would this be important to me in future? Avoid ‘miscellaneous’ as a category — you Won’t remember What’s in there.

Effective planning

Plan your work; work your plan. Time spent planning saves untold hours in execution. Implementing regular planning strategies will sharpen your focus, thereby keeping you on track with your work. Start planning today for tomorrow. Near the close of each work day, implement a 10- to 15-minute routine to wrap up loose ends and prioritise key tasks. A good plan for tomorrow allows you to clear your head and enjoy your evening. Once a week, ring-fence a 60-to 90-minute appointment with yourself for larger scale planning. Use the time to do research or any of the thinking that normally takes aback seat.

SECTION 3 Questions 28-40

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

A significant development in mining safety

A Coal has been used as a source of fuel for over 5,000 years, but for most of that time it was probably gathered from places where it was exposed on the surface of the ground. It is possible that the Romans undertook some mining, but coal mines across Europe largely date from the 13th century. Thereafter coal production increased steadily and it gradually replaced charcoal and wood as a source of heat and energy.

Initially, coal mines were fairly shallow, but they quickly reached the point where artificial lighting was necessary. At first the lights used would have been no different from those used domestically – candles and simple oil lamps. But as coal mines became deeper, miners encountered a new and terrible problem – firedamp. This was a natural gas, principally consisting of methane, that exploded on contact with a naked flame. The first known major firedamp explosion, which killed 99 people, took place in Belgium in 1514 and as new technology was used to mine at increasingly deep levels, the problem got worse.

B The simplest solution was to improve the ventilation of the mine. Many mines had only one shaft leading from the surface down to the working area below. Ventilation could be improved to some extent by dividing this into a downcast (bringing in fresh air) and an upcast (returning foul air and firedamp to the surface).

But what was really needed was a safe lamp that could not ignite firedamp. The earliest forms of safety lighting sought to produce light without using a naked flame. One early method tried to utilise the fact that skins removed from decaying fish contain the element phosphorus, which emits light in the form of phosphorescence. Unfortunately, this phosphorus is highly toxic, flammable and can self-ignite-hardly desirable properties in a safety light.

An alternative was a device invented in about 1750, consisting of a flint which struck against a piece of iron when a handle was turned, creating a shower of sparks which lit up the surrounding area. These were believed to be too cool to ignite firedamp. This device had major drawbacks – extra manpower had to be used to operate it continuously, and it also required regular maintenance and replacement. But worst of all, it was not in fact safe, and numerous accidents were caused when the sparks ignited firedamp. Nonetheless, it was considered to be the least dangerous form of lighting at the time.

C By about 1810 the problem was becoming acute, and in some cases there was no alternative to working in the dark. Some mines were being forced to stop production, with serious economic consequences for the mine owners and local communities. The general response, however, was to keep going and reluctantly accept the inevitable deaths from ignition of firedamp as a regrettable, but not especially remarkable, consequence of coal mining.

The miners themselves could do little w they were largely illiterate, and depended on the mine owners for a livelihood However, the clerical, medical and legal professions were beginning to take notice. After 92 men and boys were killed in 1812 by an explosion at Felling Colliery in northern England, several professional people took action and a society was set up to raise funds for the discovery of new methods of lighting and ventilating mines. The first report of the society stated, ‘It is to scientific men only that we must look up for assistance in providing a cheap and effectual remedy.’

D As the leading chemist of the day, and an expert on gases, Sir Humphrey Davy was a natural choice from whom to seek help, and he was approached by the society in 1815. The general belief nowadays is that he was the inventor of the first miners’ safety lamp, in which the flame was enclosed by a mesh screen containing very small holes. Air could enter the lamp through the holes, but they were too small to allow the flame of the lamp to pass through them and ignite any firedamp present in the mine tunnels. Davy presented a paper describing the lamp in November 1815, and it was trialled in January 1816.

However, a few weeks prior to Davy’s presentation, an engineer called George Stephenson had independently designed and demonstrated a lamp based on the same scientific principles. After much discussion and argument, he was eventually recognised as deserving equal credit for the discovery, but the time needed for this recognition to be given meant that the miners’ safety lamp had already been called the ‘Davy lamp’, and it is still called that today.

E But in fact, the real inventor of the safety lamp was a man called Dr William Reid Clanny, who in 1813 had been awarded a silver medal by the Royal Society of Arts, Manufacturers and Commerce for his own version of a safety lamp. Clancy’s first lamp did not fulfil the needs of the ordinary working miner as it was rather heavy and cumbersome.

But rather than seeking to glory in his achievement, he recognised its deficiencies and continued to work to improve it, as well as sharing his knowledge with others. George Stephenson acknowledged a debt to Clanny’s research, and Humphrey Davy visited him in 1815 shortly before completing the design for his own safety lamp but to this day Dr Clanny remains a forgotten hero.

Which places would you go to in the following situations?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 1—5 on your answer sheet.

List of Places:

1 You find after your flight that your suitcase has split.

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text.

In boxes 6—10 on your answer sheet, write,

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

6 Everyone is obliged to pay a 3% tax on goods they bring into Singapore.

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS . Write your answers in boxes 11—14 on your answer sheet.

11 The Singapore Marriott Hotel is described as an

12 The land that Tang bought was located Opposite a

13 The of the new Tang building is very similar to that of the original building.

14 Access to several at the Singapore Airlines Service Centre means that you don’t need to wait for assistance.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15—20 on your answer sheet.

15 Many job applicants do not dare to reveal in a CV what their real is.

16 if applicants do not include what makes them distinctive, their CVs are likely to appear to the reader.

17 Applicants need to find ways to define the that make them do well in their work.

18 It can be helpful for applicants to try to base a consideration of themselves on the of others.

19 Requesting the input of a dependable can help an applicant work out their own good points.

20 It is best to avoid the used by many applicants when describing themselves in a CV.

Complete the notes below.

How to become more organised at work

Maintaining order in the work area involves

  • keeping the minimum amount of necessary 21 and paperwork
  • restricting the number of personal 22 on the work surface
  • deciding on sensible 23 for things that are needed regularly or hardly ever
  • placing containers on the desk identified by 24 to organise on-going paperwork
  • storing documents if there is an official 25 to do so

Planning ahead is important because

  • in general, it will improve the employee’s 26 on work
  • thinking about the next day’s work ensures important 27 are given due attention

The text has five sections, A-E .

Write the correct number, i-viii , in boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i A controversy over two versions of an invention

ii The need to mine deeper for good quality coal

iii Growing awareness of the need to improve conditions for miners

iv A new danger caused by developments in mining

v The impact of poor air quality in mines on miners’ health

vi Early attempts to provide lighting without flames

vii A demand by miners for new technology

viii A person whose work never received full recognition

28 Section A _____

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY.

The problem of providing artificial lighting in coal mines

Coal mines in Europe only really developed from the 13th century. As they became deeper, the methods used for lighting them created a serious risk of 33 due to the presence of firedamp. One solution was to improve ventilation by separating the 34 into two parts, However, better lighting was also needed. One suggestion was to use a chemical found in the skins of fish, but this was found to be unsafe. Another possibility was a device which created 35 , as it was believed these would not ignite the gas. However, this required additional 36 as well as maintenance and replacement, and it was also unsafe.

Choose the correct letter; A, B, C or D.

37 What does the writer say about mine owners in 1810?

clock.png

Time’s up

9 NOT GIVEN

11 eye-catching landmark

12 cemetery

13 (unique) (Chinese) architecture

14 (self-booking) computer terminals /terminals for self-booking

15 personality

17 qualities

18 viewpoints

19 colleague

20 cliches / cliches

21 stationery

23 locations

25 requirement

33 explosion

36 manpower

tv studio tour gt reading answers

39/40 Instead of computer terminal I wrote computers on 14th

And Imran 33th Ans Risk of Exploded does not suit First of All Risk of Explosion make sense!

And For the context read the next line : This was a natural gas, principally consisting of methane, that  exploded  on contact with a naked flame. The first known major firedamp  explosion,  

How the answer of question 33 is explosion, kindly explain

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GT Reading Test 40 Section 2 - Paradise Island Trip Company & Photo Perfect Travel Cameras

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Sunset Tours- IELTS Reading Answers

Kasturika Samanta

Updated On Feb 09, 2024

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Sunset Tours- IELTS Reading Answers

Recent IELTS Reading Test with Answers - Free PDF

Reading Passage

Sunset tours.

A deposit of $150 each is payable on booking and the balance is payable 30 days before tour departure. Feel free to contact us for further information:

Office Hours: 8 am-4 pm Monday-Friday

Phone 5500 0881

Fax 5501 0881

Email: [email protected]

The cost is subject to a minimum of 25 passengers traveling and we reserve the right to cancel if this number is not reached. Should the tour be canceled, you are entitled to a full refund.

NB: The itinerary is given as a guide only and is subject to alteration if weather conditions are unfavorable or in any other unforeseen circumstances.

Each passenger is entitled to bring a cabin bag and one item of checked luggage no heavier than 20 kg as per industry requirements. Couples traveling together are requested to use individual suitcases. Your suitcase should be of a size and weight you can manage as tour leaders may not be readily available to handle your luggage.

CANCELLATION & REFUNDS

You must have a travel insurance policy to cover sudden illness or accidents. Even so, an administration fee is retained for notice of more than 30 days before departure but, should cancellation occur through unforeseen circumstances not covered by travel insurance, 10% of the fare is retained for 15- 30 days’ notice, 20% for 4- 14 days and 50% Is held for less than 4 days’ notice. There will be no refund for notice of one day or on the day of departure.

RESPONSIBILITY

Although every endeavor is made by Sunset Tours to ensure your holiday goes according to plan, we act purely as an agent for the various accommodation and other services provided.

Sunset Tours shall not be liable for any accident, injury, delay, irregularity, loss, or damage caused by or arising out of the provision of or failure to provide any such service.

Questions 1-9

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?

In boxes 1-9 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE  if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE  if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN  if there is no information on this

1  The full cost of the tour must be paid at the time the booking is made.

2 . If there are not enough bookings, the tour will not go ahead.

3 . If travel plans are disrupted because of unexpected problems, tourists can get their money back.

4 There is no weight limit on the traveler’s cabin luggage.

5 The tour leader is not allowed to help passengers with their baggage.

6 Tourists must insure against sickness and injury.

7 An insured traveler who cancels due to illness more than a month before departure gets a full refund.

8 Sunset Tours only gives a partial refund to passengers who cancel the day before the tour leaves.

9 Sunset Tours is not responsible for the state of hotel rooms.

Read the passage below and answer Questions 10-13.

Easy Listening Broadcasting Association

You Are Invited…

Dear Listener

We wish to express our sincere thanks for your support during our last successful fund-raising endeavor. Your annual donation makes it possible for us to improve the station in every way for your interest and pleasure.

We would like to extend to you an invitation to join us at the station on Wednesday, 16th August at 3.00 pm for afternoon tea and to discuss station programming. Your input will be a great help to us. It will enable us to continue programming to suit your requirements. Together we will be discussing future ideas for SZBG and whether frequent news broadcasts should be included in our agenda. There has also been a proposal to make the mainstay of our programming a talkback format. Any programming changes would have to be finalized by September 1st.

We hope you can join us and we look forward to sharing time with you. If you can join us, please be kind enough to phone, us and let us know. If you are unable to attend on this day, please phone and we will arrange a suitable date for you.

Yours sincerely

do/iia1 &,£

Tobias Rank

Programming Coordinator

RSVP by 5/8/11

Questions 10-13

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D. Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.

10 . 5ZBG primarily

A relays news broadcasts.

B focuses on talkback shows.

C plays listeners’ requests.

D plays soothing music.

11 The listener is being thanked for

A listening to 5ZBG.

B giving money to the station.

C attending afternoon tea.

D providing his input.

12 The listener is being invited to an event where he will

A participate in a program.

B raise money.

C have refreshments.

D talk about improvements.

13 The listener should reply to the letter by

A August 5th.

B July 26th.

C August 16th.

D September 1st.

Reading Answers 

1 Answer:  False

Question type:  True/False/Not Given

Answer location:  Paragraph 1

Answer explanation:  We can understand from the first paragraph that a  deposit of $150 each is payable on booking and the balance is payable 30 days before tour departure,  which means that customers can pay a deposit of $150 and pay the remaining balance before the tour departure. As a result, the statement contradicts the information, so, the answer is False.

2 Answer:  True

Question type:  True/False/Not Given

Answer location:  Paragraph 2

Answer explanation:  Paragraph 2 illustrates the  conditions  of Sunset Tours, that is the  cost is subject to a minimum of 25 passengers traveling and we reserve the right to cancel if this number is not reached.  These lines suggest that the tour will not proceed until there are not enough bookings. Thus, the statement agrees with the information, so, the answer is True.

3 Answer:  Not Given

Answer location:  Paragraph 4

Answer explanation:  We find a reference for cancellation of the tours in Paragraph 4, which states that  travelers must have a travel insurance policy to cover sudden illness or accident.  However, it’s not mentioned anywhere that if travel plans are disrupted due to unexpected problems, the tourists can get a refund. Therefore, the answer is Not Given.

4 Answer:  Not Given

Answer location:  Paragraph 3

Answer explanation:  We find a reference for cabin bags in Paragraph 3, which states that  each passenger is entitled to bring a cabin bag and one item of checked luggage no heavier than 20 kg as per industry requirements.  However, it is not mentioned anywhere that there’s no weight limit on the traveler’s cabin luggage. Thus, the answer is Not Given.

5 Answer:  False

Answer location:  Paragraph 3,last line

Answer explanation:  In the last line of the 3rd paragraph, it is stated, “ Your suitcase should be of a size and weight you can manage as tour leaders may not be readily available to handle your luggage.”  We can deduce from these lines that Sunset Tours has advised the tourist to manage the size of their luggage since the tour leaders will not always be available to handle their luggage. These lines illustrate that tour leaders help the tourists with their luggage. Hence, the statement contradicts the information, so, the answer is False.

6 Answer:  True

Answer explanation:  We can understand from Paragraph 4 that  travelers must have a travel insurance policy to cover sudden illness or accident.  As a result, tourists must insure against sickness and injury. Hence, the statement agrees with the information, so, the answer is True.

7 Answer:  False

Answer location:  Paragraph 4

Answer explanation:  Paragraph 4 discusses the cancelation and refunds of Sunset Tours. It is mentioned in this paragraph that you must have a  travel insurance policy to cover sudden illness or accident.  Even so, an administration fee is retained for notice of more than 30 days before departure but, should cancellation occur through  unforeseen circumstances not covered by travel insurance, 10% of the fare is retained for 15- 30 days’ notice ,  20% for 4- 14 days and 50% Is held for less than 4 days’ notice.  We can deduce from these lines that an insured traveler who cancels due to illness for more than a month before departure will get only the remaining refund after some amount has been retained by the tour company. Thus, the statement contradicts the information, so, the answer is False.

8 Answer:  False

Answer location:  Paragraph 4, last line

Answer explanation:  In the last line of paragraph 4, it is mentioned that  there will be no refund for notice of one day or on the day of departure.  Hence, there’ll be no refund for passengers canceling a day before the departure date. Thus, the answer is False.

9 Answer:  True

Answer location:  Paragraph 5

Answer explanation:  Paragraph 5 states that  although every endeavor is made by Sunset Tours to ensure your holiday goes according to plan, we act purely as an agent for the various accommodation and other services provided.  These lines indicate that sunset tours are not responsible for the state of hotel rooms as they act as an agent for various accommodation and services. Thus, the answer is True.

10 Answer:  D

Question type:  Multiple Choice Question

Answer location: – 

Answer explanation:  Although we don’t find any reference to what exactly 5ZBG is, we can understand from the format of the letter that  5ZBG is a broadcasting agency that primarily plays soothing music  to its listeners. Because programming in the letter refers to performing music (program). Thus, the answer is D.

11 Answer:  B

Answer explanation:  The first paragraph of the letter states, “ We wish to express our sincere thanks for your support during our last successful fund-raising endeavor. Your annual donation makes it possible for us to improve the station in every way for your interest and pleasure.”  We can understand from these lines that the authorities of 5ZBG are expressing their heartfelt thanks for their listener’s support during their fund-raising endeavors. Because of annual donations, the 5ZBG authorities can improve their station. Thus, the listener is being thanked for offering their assistance. Hence, the answer is B.

12 Answer:  D

Answer explanation:  Paragraph 2 illustrates, “ We would like to extend to you an invitation to join us at the station on Wednesday, 16th August at 3.00 pm for afternoon tea and to discuss station programming. Your input will be a great help to us. It will enable us to continue programming to suit your requirements. Together we will be discussing future ideas for SZBG “ In the 2nd paragraph of the letter, the 5ZBG authorities have invited their listeners to join the station to discuss station programming as their input will be of great help. It will enable them to continue programming to suit their requirements. Further, a discussion regarding future ideas for 5ZBG will also be held. Thus, it is evident that the listener is being invited to an event where he along with 5ZBG will discuss improvements. Thus, the answer is D.

13 Answer:  A

Answer location:  –

Answer explanation: The 5ZBG authorities have concluded the letter by writing RSVP by 5/8/11,  which means the listeners are required to reply or respond to the letter by August 5. Here, the term  “RSVP”  comes from the  French expression répondez s’il vous plaît, meaning “please respond .” If  RSVP is written on an invitation, it means the host has requested that the guest respond to say if they plan to attend the party.  Thus, the answer is A.

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Kasturika Samanta

Kasturika Samanta

Kasturika is a professional Content Writer with over three years of experience as an English language teacher. Her understanding of English language requirements, as set by foreign universities, is enriched by her interactions with students and educators. Her work is a fusion of extensive knowledge of SEO practices and up-to-date guidelines. This enables her to produce content that not only informs but also engages IELTS aspirants. Her passion for exploring new horizons has driven her to achieve new heights in her learning journey.

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  1. TV Studio Tour

    GENERAL TRAINING READING ANSWERS: READING PASSAGE 2 (TWO) 14: F: 15: Guided tour: 16: $36: 17: the NBC: 18: celebrities: 19: ... TV Studio Tour. Of the commercial TV networks, only NBC Studios in Burbank offers the public a behind-the-scenes look at the inner workings of its television operation.

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  10. PDF IELTSFever General Reading test 6

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  19. Sunset Tours- IELTS Reading Answers

    Reading Answers 1 Answer: False. Question type: True/False/Not Given Answer location: Paragraph 1 Answer explanation: We can understand from the first paragraph that a deposit of $150 each is payable on booking and the balance is payable 30 days before tour departure, which means that customers can pay a deposit of $150 and pay the remaining balance before the tour departure.

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  21. SARATOV AIRFOIL (saratov-il)

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  22. The Saratov Approach

    2013. 1 hr 47 mins. Drama, Action & Adventure. PG13. Watchlist. Two Mormon missionaries are kidnapped in Saratov, Russia, and held for ransom. In time, the Mormons and their abductor develop a ...

  23. Television studio of the Saratov Metropolis prepared a film about the

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